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MDCAT MOCK TEST 001

This is mock test for MDCAT - you can take this test to practice you preparation for next MDCAT EXAM.

MOCK TESTS · MDCAT182 questions180 min

1
The basic structural and functional unit of life is the:
- Cell
- Tissue
- Organ
- Organelle
2
Which organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production in aerobic cells?
- Ribosome
- Mitochondrion
- Golgi apparatus
- Lysosome
3
The plasma membrane is mainly composed of:
- Cellulose and starch
- Phospholipids and proteins
- DNA and RNA
- Glycogen and proteins
4
Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:
- Active transport
- Osmosis
- Endocytosis
- Facilitated diffusion
5
Ribosomes are the principal site of:
- DNA replication
- Protein synthesis
- Lipid digestion
- ATP storage
6
The cell cycle phase in which DNA is replicated is:
- G1
- S
- G2
- M
7
Crossing over normally occurs during:
- Prophase I of meiosis
- Prophase II of meiosis
- Metaphase of mitosis
- Telophase II
8
A homozygous dominant genotype is represented by:
- Aa
- aa
- AA
- A0
9
The observable characteristics of an organism constitute its:
- Genotype
- Phenotype
- Genome
- Allele
10
A recessive trait is expressed in a diploid organism when the genotype is usually:
- AA
- Aa
- aa
- A-
11
DNA contains the nitrogenous base:
- Uracil
- Thymine
- Ribose
- Glucose
12
The enzyme that unwinds DNA during replication is:
- Ligase
- Helicase
- Amylase
- Peptidase
13
DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the:
- 5' end only
- 3' end of the growing strand
- Middle of the strand
- RNA cap
14
A codon consists of:
- 2 nucleotides
- 3 nucleotides
- 4 nucleotides
- 6 nucleotides
15
Translation takes place mainly at the:
- Ribosome
- Nucleus
- Lysosome
- Centrosome
16
The molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome is:
- mRNA
- tRNA
- rRNA
- DNA
17
A mutation involving substitution of one nucleotide for another is a:
- Point mutation
- Polyploidy
- Translocation
- Duplication
18
Natural selection directly acts on:
- Phenotypic variation
- DNA bases only
- Individual alleles in isolation
- Chromosome number only
19
The process by which one species gives rise to two reproductively isolated species is:
- Respiration
- Speciation
- Transcription
- Translation
20
The immediate energy currency of most cellular processes is:
- DNA
- ATP
- NADP only
- Glucose only
21
Glycolysis occurs in the:
- Nucleus
- Cytoplasm
- Mitochondrial matrix
- Golgi apparatus
22
The end products of glycolysis from one glucose molecule include:
- Two pyruvate molecules
- Six carbon dioxide molecules only
- One acetyl-CoA only
- Two lactate molecules in all conditions
23
The Krebs cycle occurs mainly in the:
- Mitochondrial matrix
- Cytoplasm
- Nucleus
- Ribosome
24
The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is:
- Carbon dioxide
- Oxygen
- Glucose
- NADH
25
Photosynthesis primarily occurs in:
- Mitochondria
- Chloroplasts
- Lysosomes
- Centrioles
26
The oxygen released during photosynthesis comes mainly from:
- Carbon dioxide
- Water
- Glucose
- Chlorophyll
27
The Calvin cycle uses ATP and NADPH to help form:
- Carbohydrates
- DNA directly
- Oxygen gas
- Amino acids only
28
The pigment chiefly responsible for photosynthesis in green plants is:
- Chlorophyll a
- Hemoglobin
- Melanin
- Keratin
29
Stomata mainly regulate:
- Blood pressure
- Gas exchange and water loss
- Protein digestion
- Seed dormancy only
30
The functional unit of the kidney is the:
- Neuron
- Nephron
- Alveolus
- Villus
31
Ultrafiltration occurs mainly at the:
- Glomerulus
- Collecting duct
- Loop of Henle only
- Ureter
32
ADH primarily increases water reabsorption in the:
- Collecting ducts
- Stomach
- Pancreas
- Gall bladder
33
Insulin generally causes blood glucose concentration to:
- Increase sharply
- Decrease
- Remain permanently unchanged
- Become zero
34
The hormone that raises blood glucose during fasting is:
- Insulin
- Glucagon
- Melatonin
- Calcitonin
35
Gas exchange in human lungs occurs mainly across the:
- Alveolar-capillary membrane
- Tracheal cartilage
- Pleural cavity
- Epiglottis
36
The main muscle responsible for quiet inspiration is the:
- Diaphragm
- Biceps
- Rectus abdominis
- Triceps
37
Hemoglobin is found mainly in:
- Platelets
- Red blood cells
- Plasma proteins
- White blood cells
38
Which blood cells are primarily responsible for adaptive immunity?
- Red blood cells
- Lymphocytes
- Platelets
- Erythrocytes only
39
Platelets are important for:
- Oxygen transport
- Blood clotting
- Hormone production
- Bile formation
40
The universal donor for red-cell transfusion is commonly considered:
- AB positive
- O negative
- A positive
- B negative
41
The antibody-producing cells of adaptive immunity are derived from:
- B lymphocytes
- Red blood cells
- Platelets
- Neutrophils only
42
Vaccination primarily produces:
- Artificially acquired active immunity
- Artificially acquired passive immunity
- Natural passive immunity
- No immune memory
43
Antibodies are best described as:
- Lipids
- Immunoglobulin proteins
- Carbohydrates
- Nucleic acids
44
The first line of nonspecific defense includes:
- Skin and mucous membranes
- Memory B cells only
- Antibodies only
- Red blood cells
45
The junction between two neurons is called a:
- Synapse
- Sarcomere
- Glomerulus
- Alveolus
46
The neurotransmitter released at many neuromuscular junctions is:
- Acetylcholine
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
- Pepsin
47
The myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system is produced by:
- Schwann cells
- Neutrophils
- Osteocytes
- Hepatocytes
48
The part of the brain chiefly involved in balance and coordination is the:
- Cerebellum
- Medulla
- Hypothalamus
- Pituitary
49
The medulla oblongata helps regulate:
- Vital autonomic functions
- Vision only
- Bone growth only
- Antibody structure
50
Thyroxine is secreted by the:
- Thyroid gland
- Adrenal cortex
- Pancreas
- Pituitary posterior lobe
51
The hormone that promotes milk production is:
- Prolactin
- ADH
- Insulin
- Adrenaline
52
Ovulation is triggered primarily by a surge of:
- LH
- ADH
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
53
Fertilization in humans normally occurs in the:
- Fallopian tube
- Uterus
- Cervix
- Vagina
54
The placenta primarily allows:
- Exchange between maternal and fetal circulations
- Direct mixing of all blood cells
- Digestion of fetal food
- Production of sperm
55
Sperm are produced in the:
- Seminiferous tubules
- Prostate gland
- Vas deferens
- Seminal vesicle
56
The male gamete is:
- Sperm
- Ovum
- Zygote
- Embryo
57
A human somatic cell normally contains:
- 23 chromosomes
- 46 chromosomes
- 44 chromosomes only
- 92 chromosomes
58
A human gamete normally contains:
- 46 chromosomes
- 23 chromosomes
- 92 chromosomes
- 44 pairs
59
The zygote is:
- Haploid
- Diploid
- Triploid
- Without chromosomes
60
The enzyme in saliva that begins starch digestion is:
- Salivary amylase
- Pepsin
- Trypsin
- Lipase only
61
Pepsin works mainly in the:
- Stomach
- Mouth
- Large intestine
- Gall bladder
62
Bile is produced by the:
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Stomach
- Kidney
63
The main role of bile in fat digestion is to:
- Emulsify fats
- Digest proteins directly
- Convert glucose to glycogen
- Destroy all enzymes
64
Most nutrient absorption occurs in the:
- Small intestine
- Stomach
- Esophagus
- Large intestine
65
Villi increase intestinal absorption by increasing:
- Surface area
- Blood pressure
- Stomach acidity
- Bile production
66
The end product of protein digestion is mainly:
- Amino acids
- Fatty acids
- Nucleotides only
- Glycerol only
67
Calcium is especially important for:
- Bone structure and muscle contraction
- DNA being absent
- Bile production only
- Oxygen being destroyed
68
Vitamin D helps the body absorb:
- Calcium
- Oxygen
- Urea
- Hemoglobin
69
Iron deficiency most directly impairs formation of:
- Hemoglobin
- Insulin
- Bile salts
- Collagen only
70
The structural unit of compact bone is the:
- Osteon
- Neuron
- Nephron
- Sarcomere
71
Muscle contraction is initiated when calcium binds to:
- Troponin
- Keratin
- Hemoglobin
- Collagen
72
The sliding-filament model states that during contraction:
- Actin slides past myosin
- Myosin disappears
- Sarcomeres lengthen
- Actin becomes DNA
73
The functional unit of skeletal muscle contraction is the:
- Sarcomere
- Alveolus
- Nephron
- Synapse
74
A tendon connects:
- Muscle to bone
- Bone to bone
- Nerve to nerve
- Skin to muscle only
75
Ligaments primarily connect:
- Bone to bone
- Muscle to bone
- Neuron to muscle
- Skin to bone
76
The process by which organisms maintain a stable internal environment is:
- Homeostasis
- Evolution
- Mutation
- Transcription
77
Negative feedback generally:
- Opposes a change from a set point
- Amplifies every change
- Stops all metabolism
- Prevents receptors from working
78
In a reflex arc, the integration center is commonly located in the:
- Spinal cord
- Lens
- Kidney
- Liver
79
The process of producing RNA from a DNA template is:
- Transcription
- Translation
- Replication
- Fermentation
80
Which RNA forms a major structural component of ribosomes?
- rRNA
- tRNA
- mRNA
- miRNA only
81
An enzyme speeds a reaction by:
- Lowering activation energy
- Increasing product energy permanently
- Being consumed completely
- Changing the equilibrium constant
82
High temperature can reduce enzyme activity because it may:
- Denature the enzyme
- Create more DNA
- Increase chromosome number
- Turn proteins into carbohydrates
83
Competitive inhibition can often be reduced by increasing:
- Substrate concentration
- Enzyme denaturation
- Temperature to infinity
- Product toxicity
84
The atomic number of an element equals the number of:
- Neutrons
- Protons
- Protons plus neutrons
- Electrons plus neutrons
85
Isotopes of an element have the same number of:
- Protons
- Neutrons
- Nucleons only
- Mass numbers
86
One mole contains approximately:
- 6.022 × 10^23 particles
- 9.81 × 10^2 particles
- 3.00 × 10^8 particles
- 1.60 × 10^-19 particles
87
The empirical formula represents the:
- Simplest whole-number ratio of atoms
- Exact molecular mass only
- Number of neutrons
- Electron configuration only
88
Which bond results from transfer of electrons?
- Covalent
- Ionic
- Hydrogen
- Metallic only
89
A covalent bond involves:
- Sharing of electron pairs
- Complete proton transfer
- Neutron sharing
- Nuclear fusion
90
The shape of methane, CH4, is:
- Linear
- Trigonal planar
- Tetrahedral
- Bent
91
The pH of a neutral aqueous solution at 25°C is approximately:
- 0
- 7
- 10
- 14 only for all temperatures
92
A strong acid:
- Ionizes extensively in water
- Never forms ions
- Always has pH 7
- Cannot react with bases
93
Which is a strong base?
- NaOH
- CH3COOH
- H2CO3
- NH4Cl
94
An exothermic reaction:
- Releases heat to surroundings
- Always absorbs heat
- Cannot occur spontaneously
- Has no energy change
95
A catalyst generally:
- Lowers activation energy
- Raises the equilibrium constant
- Is consumed stoichiometrically
- Changes the products at equilibrium
96
Increasing temperature usually increases reaction rate because particles:
- Have greater average kinetic energy
- Become heavier
- Stop colliding
- Lose all energy
97
At chemical equilibrium:
- Forward and reverse rates are equal
- All reactants disappear
- Reaction stops completely
- Only products exist
98
Le Chatelier's principle predicts that an equilibrium system:
- Shifts to oppose an imposed change
- Always shifts toward reactants
- Always shifts toward products
- Stops reacting
99
Oxidation is commonly defined as:
- Loss of electrons
- Gain of electrons
- Gain of neutrons
- Loss of protons only
100
A reducing agent is a species that:
- Donates electrons
- Accepts electrons
- Cannot react
- Always contains oxygen
101
The oxidation state of oxygen in most compounds is:
- -2
- +2
- 0
- +1
102
The gas law relating pressure and volume at constant temperature is:
- Boyle's law
- Charles's law
- Avogadro's law
- Graham's law
103
At constant pressure, gas volume is directly proportional to absolute temperature according to:
- Charles's law
- Boyle's law
- Dalton's law
- Henry's law
104
The ideal gas equation is:
- PV = nRT
- P = n/RVT
- PV = RT/n
- PVT = n/R
105
Molarity is defined as:
- Moles of solute per litre of solution
- Grams per mole
- Moles per kilogram of solvent
- Litres per mole
106
A buffer solution resists changes in:
- pH
- Mass
- Volume only
- Temperature only
107
The main intermolecular force in nonpolar molecules is:
- London dispersion force
- Ionic bonding
- Metallic bonding
- Covalent network bonding
108
Hydrogen bonding is especially significant when hydrogen is bonded to:
- N, O, or F
- Na, K, or Ca
- C only
- Cl only
109
Alkanes contain:
- Only single C-C bonds
- At least one C=C bond
- A benzene ring
- Only ionic bonds
110
The general formula of open-chain alkanes is:
- CnH2n+2
- CnH2n
- CnHn
- CnH2n−2
111
An alkene contains at least one:
- C=C double bond
- C≡C triple bond
- C=O only
- N=N bond
112
The functional group of alcohols is:
- −OH
- −COOH
- −CHO
- −NH2
113
The functional group of carboxylic acids is:
- −COOH
- −OH only
- −NH2
- −O−
114
Ethanol can be oxidized to:
- Ethanal
- Ethene only
- Methane
- Benzene directly
115
Esters are commonly formed by reaction between:
- Carboxylic acid and alcohol
- Alkane and alkene
- Amine and alkane only
- Salt and metal
116
Amino acids contain both:
- Amino and carboxyl groups
- Hydroxyl and aldehyde groups only
- Ketone and ester groups
- Phosphate and sulfide groups only
117
A peptide bond forms between:
- Amino acids
- Glucose molecules only
- Fatty acids only
- Nucleotides only
118
The monomers of proteins are:
- Amino acids
- Monosaccharides
- Nucleotides
- Glycerol only
119
The monomer units of DNA are:
- Nucleotides
- Amino acids
- Fatty acids
- Monosaccharides
120
Glucose is a:
- Monosaccharide
- Disaccharide
- Polypeptide
- Lipid
121
Sucrose is composed of:
- Glucose and fructose
- Glucose and glucose
- Fructose and galactose
- Ribose and glucose
122
A saturated fatty acid contains:
- No carbon-carbon double bonds
- Many C=C bonds
- A nitrogen ring
- Only aromatic bonds
123
Soap molecules clean grease because they are:
- Amphiphilic
- Only hydrophobic
- Only hydrophilic
- Purely ionic gases
124
Aromatic compounds characteristically contain:
- A conjugated ring system such as benzene
- Only single carbon atoms
- No carbon-carbon bonds
- Only ionic bonds
125
The reagent commonly used to test for starch is:
- Iodine solution
- Biuret reagent
- Benedict's reagent
- Sudan III only
126
Biuret reagent is commonly used to detect:
- Proteins/peptide bonds
- Starch
- Vitamin C
- Chloride ions
127
Benedict's reagent is commonly used to detect:
- Reducing sugars
- Proteins
- Lipids only
- DNA only
128
The number of significant figures in 0.00450 is:
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
129
The SI unit of force is:
- Joule
- Newton
- Watt
- Pascal
130
Acceleration is the rate of change of:
- Displacement
- Velocity
- Mass
- Energy
131
The slope of a velocity-time graph represents:
- Distance
- Acceleration
- Momentum
- Force
132
The area under a velocity-time graph represents:
- Displacement
- Acceleration
- Mass
- Power
133
Newton's second law is expressed as:
- F = ma
- F = m/a
- F = a/m
- F = mv
134
Momentum is given by:
- p = mv
- p = ma
- p = m/v
- p = F/v
135
Impulse equals the change in:
- Momentum
- Mass
- Temperature
- Density
136
Work done by a constant force parallel to displacement is:
- Fs
- F/s
- F+s
- F−s
137
The SI unit of power is:
- Joule
- Watt
- Newton
- Volt
138
Kinetic energy is:
- mv
- 1/2 mv²
- mgh
- F/t
139
Gravitational potential energy near Earth's surface is:
- mgh
- mv²
- ma
- Pt
140
A body moving in a circle at constant speed has:
- No acceleration
- Centripetal acceleration
- No velocity
- Constant direction of velocity
141
Centripetal force is directed:
- Away from center
- Toward center
- Along tangent only
- Vertically upward always
142
The SI unit of frequency is:
- Hertz
- Newton
- Tesla
- Coulomb
143
Wave speed is related to frequency and wavelength by:
- v = fλ
- v = f/λ
- v = λ/f
- v = f+λ
144
In a transverse wave, particles vibrate:
- Parallel to propagation
- Perpendicular to propagation
- Only in circles
- Without displacement
145
Sound cannot travel through:
- Steel
- Water
- Vacuum
- Air
146
The pitch of a sound is primarily related to its:
- Frequency
- Amplitude
- Speed only
- Wavelength only
147
The unit of electric current is:
- Coulomb
- Ampere
- Volt
- Ohm
148
Ohm's law is:
- V = IR
- V = I/R
- R = VI
- I = VR
149
Electrical power can be written as:
- P = VI
- P = V/I
- P = I/V
- P = R/I
150
Two resistors in series have total resistance:
- R1 + R2
- R1R2/(R1+R2)
- R1−R2
- R1/R2
151
For resistors in parallel, the equivalent resistance is:
- Greater than both
- Less than the smallest resistor
- Equal to their sum
- Always zero
152
The electric field around a positive point charge is directed:
- Toward the charge
- Away from the charge
- In circles only
- Randomly
153
The unit of electric charge is:
- Coulomb
- Ampere
- Farad
- Henry
154
A capacitor stores energy in its:
- Magnetic field only
- Electric field
- Nucleus
- Mechanical spring only
155
The SI unit of magnetic flux density is:
- Tesla
- Weber
- Volt
- Ohm
156
A transformer operates using:
- Electromagnetic induction
- Chemical equilibrium
- Electrolysis only
- Static friction
157
A step-up transformer increases:
- Voltage
- Frequency
- Charge
- Mass
158
The photoelectric effect supports the idea that light has:
- Particle-like behavior
- Only sound-like behavior
- No energy
- Only gravitational behavior
159
Photon energy is given by:
- E = hf
- E = h/f
- E = f/h
- E = mc/f
160
Half-life is the time required for:
- All nuclei to decay
- Half the radioactive nuclei to decay
- One nucleus to decay
- Mass to double
161
Alpha radiation consists of:
- Helium nuclei
- Electrons
- Photons
- Neutrons only
162
The rest energy of a mass m is:
- mc²
- mv²
- m/c²
- mc
163
A convex lens is generally:
- Converging
- Diverging
- Opaque
- A perfect mirror
164
For an object at infinity, a convex lens forms the image approximately at:
- Optical center
- Principal focus
- Twice focal length always
- Infinity
165
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'abundant':
- Scarce
- Plentiful
- Fragile
- Ancient
166
Choose the opposite of 'reluctant':
- Unwilling
- Eager
- Doubtful
- Silent
167
Select the grammatically correct sentence:
- He do not know the answer.
- He does not knows the answer.
- He does not know the answer.
- He not know the answer.
168
Choose the correctly spelled word:
- Occassion
- Ocassion
- Occasion
- Occassionn
169
In the sentence 'Although it was raining, the match continued,' the word 'Although' introduces a:
- Contrast/concession clause
- Noun phrase
- Direct object
- Question
170
Choose the best completion: 'If I ___ earlier, I would have caught the bus.'
- leave
- left
- had left
- have left
171
The word 'meticulous' most nearly means:
- Careless
- Very careful and precise
- Angry
- Rapid
172
Choose the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement:
- The list of items are on the table.
- The list of items is on the table.
- The list of items were on the table.
- The list of items have on the table.
173
Choose the best meaning of the idiom 'break the ice':
- To start a friendly conversation
- To damage something
- To end a friendship
- To become silent
174
If all doctors are graduates and Ali is a doctor, which conclusion must be true?
- Ali is a graduate.
- All graduates are doctors.
- Ali is not a graduate.
- No doctors are graduates.
175
Find the next number: 2, 4, 8, 16, ?
- 20
- 24
- 32
- 34
176
Find the odd one out:
- Square
- Triangle
- Circle
- Cube
177
If BOOK is coded as CPPL by shifting each letter one place forward, how is MIND coded?
- NJOE
- LHMC
- NJOE
- MJOE
178
A is taller than B. B is taller than C. Which statement is definitely true?
- C is taller than A
- A is taller than C
- A and C are equal
- B is shortest
179
A clock shows 3:00. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands?
- 30°
- 60°
- 90°
- 180°
180
If today is Monday, what day will it be after 45 days?
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
- Thursday
- Friday
181
Complete the analogy: Heart : Circulation :: Lungs : ?
- Digestion
- Respiration
- Excretion
- Movement
182
A statement says: 'Some students are athletes.' Which conclusion is logically valid?
- All students are athletes.
- No students are athletes.
- At least one student is an athlete.
- All athletes are students.

MDCAT MOCK TEST 001

The basic structural and functional unit of life is the:

Which organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production in aerobic cells?

The plasma membrane is mainly composed of:

Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:

Ribosomes are the principal site of:

The cell cycle phase in which DNA is replicated is:

Crossing over normally occurs during:

A homozygous dominant genotype is represented by:

The observable characteristics of an organism constitute its:

A recessive trait is expressed in a diploid organism when the genotype is usually:

DNA contains the nitrogenous base:

The enzyme that unwinds DNA during replication is:

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the:

A codon consists of:

Translation takes place mainly at the:

The molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome is:

A mutation involving substitution of one nucleotide for another is a:

Natural selection directly acts on:

The process by which one species gives rise to two reproductively isolated species is:

The immediate energy currency of most cellular processes is:

Glycolysis occurs in the:

The end products of glycolysis from one glucose molecule include:

The Krebs cycle occurs mainly in the:

The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is:

Photosynthesis primarily occurs in:

The oxygen released during photosynthesis comes mainly from:

The Calvin cycle uses ATP and NADPH to help form:

The pigment chiefly responsible for photosynthesis in green plants is:

Stomata mainly regulate:

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

Ultrafiltration occurs mainly at the:

ADH primarily increases water reabsorption in the:

Insulin generally causes blood glucose concentration to:

The hormone that raises blood glucose during fasting is:

Gas exchange in human lungs occurs mainly across the:

The main muscle responsible for quiet inspiration is the:

Hemoglobin is found mainly in:

Which blood cells are primarily responsible for adaptive immunity?

Platelets are important for:

The universal donor for red-cell transfusion is commonly considered:

The antibody-producing cells of adaptive immunity are derived from:

Vaccination primarily produces:

Antibodies are best described as:

The first line of nonspecific defense includes:

The junction between two neurons is called a:

The neurotransmitter released at many neuromuscular junctions is:

The myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system is produced by:

The part of the brain chiefly involved in balance and coordination is the:

The medulla oblongata helps regulate:

Thyroxine is secreted by the:

The hormone that promotes milk production is:

Ovulation is triggered primarily by a surge of:

Fertilization in humans normally occurs in the:

The placenta primarily allows:

Sperm are produced in the:

The male gamete is:

A human somatic cell normally contains:

A human gamete normally contains:

The zygote is:

The enzyme in saliva that begins starch digestion is:

Pepsin works mainly in the:

Bile is produced by the:

The main role of bile in fat digestion is to:

Most nutrient absorption occurs in the:

Villi increase intestinal absorption by increasing:

The end product of protein digestion is mainly:

Calcium is especially important for:

Vitamin D helps the body absorb:

Iron deficiency most directly impairs formation of:

The structural unit of compact bone is the:

Muscle contraction is initiated when calcium binds to:

The sliding-filament model states that during contraction:

The functional unit of skeletal muscle contraction is the:

A tendon connects:

Ligaments primarily connect:

The process by which organisms maintain a stable internal environment is:

Negative feedback generally:

In a reflex arc, the integration center is commonly located in the:

The process of producing RNA from a DNA template is: